Ah, I love a good debate, now so many posts. Lets start.
The very fact that you had to take Slavery out of your equation to make your point, is the reason I think your argument is flawed from the start. Slavery was a factor in the equation. And it was certainly a hot social powder keg long before 1863. And it has always been and always will be morally wrong.
Charlesobscureasked what would the South be fighting for if slavery was taken out of the equation. I did just that. I have never encouraged slavery, I believe it is a diabolical act that is an evil. But I try to look past the usual "facts" to try to find a different view.
I don't understand how supporters of the Cause are capable of looking at the hard cold fact that the South kept almost 4 million human beings enslaved for the sake of the survival of their economy, and say that there was something good in that Cause, or that somehow Slavery should not factor into the judgment of their actions
I am not a believer of the "cause". I am a student of history, that is an amateur if anything. But I do try to find a different point. I have found with years of reading and thinking, the South was right. THIS does not mean that slavery was good. I agree with Robert Lee when he said that slavery was a necessary evil. What would have become if the slaves were set free all at once? First the South would be in shambles. The south earned money off the backs of slaves. The southern economy would be in a total mess. But since most wouldn't be sympathetic to that fact, we can look at what happened
when the slaves were freed. They had severe trouble finding jobs because when a racist belief is ingrained into (In BOTH the North and South), the whites found it hard to pay a black man for something that they were getting free a few months ago. That is human nature, not one I am proud of, but it is. The ex-slaves would be pushed into share-cropping, which they were and will stay in a perpetual state of poverty until the Civil Rights movement. But when we look at world history. Every major world power that had slaves at some point in their history have eventually let them go. They have eventually been set free to be humans. Why was the South a special case? What would have happened if slavery was aloud to die naturally? Slavery would have lasted longer, but not up until today, I think it would have ended before World War I. Blacks would more respected because the change was gradually introduced, not thrust upon an unwilling populace.
But before we start pointing fingers at the South for having slaves, lets look at some facts of factory workers in the North. They were kept in a virtual state of slavery their whole lives. No workers protection (and I am a very conservative individual, but workers rights is where I am quite liberal). And before we talk about the South keeping the slaves, we must see that racism was rampant in the United States North AND South. It was one thing to preach of abolition and quite another to invite an ex-slave into your home to eat at your table.
Fair enough that the South ideally would have chosen a "live and let live" approach. But that still does not justify their actions. Lincoln was responding to what it was, a rebellion. As President of the United States, what other course of action should he have taken? Let the country tear itself asunder because a minority, albeit a large one, could not bear that its hold on the country was gradually weakening? This was plainly not an appropriate circumstance to invoke the right of revolution. Consequently, this could be seen as nothing other than rebellion, and Lincoln acted accordingly. How is it an act of Northern aggression when the South fired on Fort Sumter because Lincoln tried to resupply a United States military post, a post that was already rightfully a part of the United States?
When Lincoln reacted, the secession of the Confederacy was not a rebellion. No force of action was taken against the Federal Government except the
peaceful secession of the South. I never said there was much Lincoln could do, I am not saying what he was doing was wrong, I am saying that it wasn't right in the sense. The original question was if Lincoln was to blame for the war, he was. I think he should of taken action, but he was morally and legally wrong to take such actions. I still think he was right to do so. I hope that makes sense. I answered that final question in my original post. Please refer to it.
It is contrary to all methods of textual interpretation to read something into a document that directly contravenes its entire purpose. The Constitution was meant to strengthen the federal government in light of the failures of the Articles of Confederation. There is no reason to believe that the Founders implicitly would have allowed for a method in which the minority could tear apart the country at will.
I am a strict constructionist. I take the words quite literal because that is what they wrote, it must have been what they meant. This argument will come down to the difference of opinions, so this part is useless. But I must say, the South followed the principles in the Declaration of Independence, no matter what we think they fought over, they still followed the DOI.
Excuse me but how can you use this to justify your arguments since the Confederate government was formed AFTER the South Carolina forces fired on the Star of the West sent by Buchanan. You keep skipping over this basic fact that the first shot of the war was fired long before Lincoln even got to Washington for his inauguration and was fired by what became a Southern state on a civilian ship of Northern registry.
I do not skip over the fact. The South fired the first shot, I mentioned the Star of the West in a post telling you I did not forget it. But war did not break out until Lincoln sent the resupply ship which did spark off the war. The firing on the Star of the West is not known as the starting point, Fort Sumter is.
States do not have legal right to secede. They never did. The Supreme Court, which has absolute law of the land, ruled in the 1869 case Texas vs White "When, therefore, Texas became one of the United States, she entered into an indissoluble relation. All the obligations of perpetual union, and all the guaranties of republican government in the Union, attached at once to the State. The act which consummated her admission into the Union was something more than a compact; it was the incorporation of a new member into the political body. And it was final. The union between Texas and the other States was as complete, as perpetual, and as indissoluble as the union between the original States." Whether you agree with that or not is irrelevant.
It seems that you have overlooked that date. 1869? A full four years after the war ended. A full nine years after the South seceded. Secession was totally legal when the South took that action. When the 17th Amendment made Senatorial seats under popular vote, were prior senators there illegally? No, the amendment was not in place. The same with this situation. Texas vs. White was not in effect during the time of secession, making secession legal. My opinion matters little, but the
fact is that the case was irrelevant because it took effect
after the South seceded. That is fact whether you think dates are irrelevant or something:P
